does repetitive homophones equate to epizeuxis?

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because we must write right

does repetitive homophones equate to epizeuxis, or must the words be the same spelling? the same meaning?

this is too, too much

bringing it to two too many

GracianB Answered question December 4, 2019
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so no special designation?

English Tutor Posted new comment December 7, 2019
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Traditionally, they must be the same, having same spellings. However, when it comes to two different sounds, it seems that it is not this term.

English Tutor Answered question December 4, 2019