does repetitive homophones equate to epizeuxis?

Question

3.84K viewsDecember 4, 2019

GracianB (anonymous) December 3, 2019 0 Comments

because we must write right

does repetitive homophones equate to epizeuxis, or must the words be the same spelling? the same meaning?

this is too, too much

bringing it to two too many

score 0 · Answer 1 · 2019-12-04T18:59:38+00:00

0

so no special designation?

score 0 · Answer 2 · 2019-12-04T14:37:52+00:00

0

Traditionally, they must be the same, having same spellings. However, when it comes to two different sounds, it seems that it is not this term.