does repetitive homophones equate to epizeuxis?

142 views
0 Comments

because we must write right

does repetitive homophones equate to epizeuxis, or must the words be the same spelling? the same meaning?

this is too, too much

bringing it to two too many

Answered question

2 Answers

0
17 0 Comments

so no special designation?

Posted new comment
0
768 0 Comments

Traditionally, they must be the same, having same spellings. However, when it comes to two different sounds, it seems that it is not this term.

Answered question